If Congress passes a gun
control bill that exempts themselves from the restrictions imposed by the bill,
what possible rationale would be appropriate for them to legally purchase
assault weapons outlawed in the bill?
Why would the rationale used by the Congressional member not be just as
valid for any citizen of the United States?
If it is simply because they are Congressional members, would that not
be a law enacted only for the defined privileged? That would be a blatant form of gross
discrimination. It seems that would
finally be Congress defining themselves as Washington elitists.
Jim Killebrew
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